Baccarat MATH QUESTION

if singles are 50% and doubles are 25% and 3+ is 25%

if you bet 1 unit every single you would win 50 units
3 units every double you would win 75 units
and all the rest you lose 100 units shoulda you wint 25% every shoe?

 

No. This is not solving the game. Thank you.

 

Interesting proposition but would that include losses? Might be a possibility to test though.

 

im just going by the math

 

In theory if singles are 50% and doubles are 25 %, shouldn't the bet be 2 units on a single a 1 unit on a double and if runs to 3 wait for next signal ?

 

I play baccarat like red n black on roulette, I look for patterns in the history and against them happening again, its easy.

 

I think that if you lose that single bet then hitting the next one for a 2 for more money makes sense since a 2 or less should happen 75% of the time.

 

I HAD STROKE! This is my first post in years. I used by a MATH guy. You might remember my radio show, Gambling with a Edge, and my book. I'm bed bound I would try to help again... Hi!

I don't understand you question exactly???

You said, "if singles are 50% and doubles are 25% and 3+ is 25%

if you bet 1 unit every single you would win 50 units
3 units every double you would win 75 units
and all the rest you lose 100 units shoulda you wint 25% every shoe?

Could you write it in "plain English" without the "gambler speak".

After the stroke the idioms and nicknames were lost...Then I could try to answer your question...


Old Quote:
The trick with gambling math is not knowing how to multiply, add, subtract or divide, it's knowing what to multiply, add, subtract or divide. ~FK

 

single appear 50% of the time so bet for every single 1 unit if you lose bet 3 units for doubles if u lose stop betting till a single appears again

 

I have seen various numbers bandied about on forums and they are ALL wrong (I haven't seen a correct number quoted to date).

In actual terms when looking at binary 50/50 outcomes (ignoring ties) singles represent 31.25% of outcomes whilst 68.75% of results occur as part of a run of repeats of 2 or more.

You can do this yourself writing out all possible outcomes of 8 events (aka binary truth tables) and then counting up the singles, 2iar, 3iar, 4iar up to 8iar. This is basically 2048 outcomes (256 rows of 8 outcomes) for all possible combinations.

You will find for each side of player and banker that we have the following totals :
320 singles = 320 results
144 2iar or 144 × 2 = 288 results
64 3iar or 64 × 3 = 192 results
28 4iar = 28 × 4 = 112 results
12 5iar = 12 × 5 = 60 results
5 6iar = 5 × 6 = 30 results
2 7iar = 2 × 7 = 14 results
1 8iar = 1 × 8 = 8 results

Adding up the 2iar and greater we get:
288+192+112+60+30+14+8 = 704 results

Adding up the singles and repeats we get:
704 + 320 = 1024

Doing this for both sides is 2 × 1024 = 2048 which accounts perfectly with the number of outcomes being considered.

And it is then simple to see that 320 ÷ 1024 = 31.25% of all results are singles whilst 68.75% are captured in streaks or repeats.

Hope this helps with more accurate analysis of even chance bets. We can see that capturing runs of 2iar and 3iar gives 480 results whilst singles is just 320.

Also conveniently the runs by definition are clustered and favor positive progression. Also runs must cluster to have the same probability of other patterns, the answer to why that is the case can be learned by studying Penneys game and understanding waiting times and how different patterns either do or do not correlate. For example PBB will occur before BBB with probability 7/8 in favour of PBB. Whilst to get another PBB needs another 3 results minimum, whilst BBB my not appear as soon, when it does appears it can cluster, so that BBBBB is actually 3 occurances of BBB in just 5 outcomes.

This also hints at breaking up the stream to isolate patterns.

 

Sorry to hear Frank.

My (second) post in a long time too!

 

Thank you!

 

So I'm trying understand the word, "single". See if I have right???

On the last 8 plays you got:
BBPBPPBP (THAT WAS SINGLE)

PPPBPBPP (THAT was not a single)

Correct???

 

Singles are one consecutive result of Bank or Player so a series of singles would be B P B P B...
Doubles: B B P P B B...
Triples: B B B P P P...

 

Single being a single occurance.

So XOXXXOOX would be a single X, followed by a single O, followed by a 3iar (three in a row) X, then a 2iar (two in a row) O and a single X.

 

You are not counting your losses. Win 50 and lose 50. Win 75 and lose 75. You break even minus the house edge of slightly more than 1%.

 

So does a "single" requires 6 hands with BP or PB?

What is a single hand "P" or a "B" called, without knowing that past or the future.

For me, a SINGLE hand means "single hand" it does require anything else...

~FK

P.S. Like I said, "I had a stroke". I'm not getting it...It's NOT YOU!!!

 

Thank you again to being patience...,

 

I GOT IT!!!

 

By the way...my team was only for betting on the tie.

So I never learned about normal play.

Seems like I made about 30K as my cut. And is was barred for most tables. It was just 3 months...

The Team made 100K +

I think don't quote me.

~FK