Roulette Figure it out

Sorry the gaps from the page went to close.. those are the gaps for each sett as a whole ..

 

Still not sure how you did the calculation. But my findings are as follows (you will have the same results) the more you go down the colums (laps) the bigger the gaps will be. This is perfectly normal. Why? Because there are fewer numbers (or sets or what you.) What do I mean:

Example for the 1st win. (example not the true data because im doing this from my head but the principle stays the same.)

lap 2 on average 8 numbers for 4.5 spins (=36)

lap 15 on average 2 numbers for 18 spins (=36)

Now my reasoning would be, if the gaps would increase there would be fewer double hits, right? nope there would be always be 1 in 36 double hit just as betting random.

But there is difference in data (gaps) but still we can not use it, because we never know WHEN the increased gaps will take place.

etc etc etc.

It also did not matter if I created sets of numbers the results were always the same.

Then I thougt well, we know that a set of numbers in a horse race one will hit sooner than the rest. So what if we waited for the last number in a set to hit to complete the set. Nope did not wrok.

I even implemented the geiger counter principle. Meaning 1 spin = 1 spin. 10 spin = 1 spins. 100spins = 1 spin. Couldnt make it work.

I tried so many combinations you couldnt believe. Not sure what to test next...

 

Well i understand that ,as i said yesterday also we just are trying different things. I just shared the full table which is until i have 37 numbers appeared , not that i have to go until there but that's the full table all numbers out like a max spin...The calculation was based on the whole set of numbers that are on 1x for example and not only the top 3 on that race..

Now, i like cycles as they kind off showing where to bet next . Taking only the 1x row btw i can't find the perfect way at least for now how to use this at the best .


Gaps For The Whole Set 1X 1 1 4 5 2 9 4 1 1 3 1 10 3 1 1 2 4 2 9 4 4 3 1 3 10 2 2 2 11 5 1

I did convert that to a table :

1x 1 4 5
2x 1 4 3
3x 1 2 4
4x 1 4 2
5x 1 2
6x 1 2
7x 1
8x 1
9x 1

Then i go to fase that i use a loop based on avg spin needed all numbers to appear i have set it to 133 from then on i have always 133 spins so it is a continuous play then plus the (trigger) i don't like that word but anyway and was trying to only go for the 3x set as it will be the tip off the balance distribution as example on the pic...

 

Dont you have different set sizes then?

 

We don't care about size but about gaps!
I went to a loop size like that as the distribution will more balanced.

 

What I mean is do you have different sets of numbers. Because you DO get different gaps with different sets.

 

Yes the different sets are the 1x 2x etc but i only was focusing on the 3x . The sets are on that picture.

 

I'm affraid the data is then skewed. Bigger sets have lower gaps, and smaller sets have bigger gaps.

 

That's what the data is showing , 1x is the bigger sett why skewed!!! i don't even added unhit as it will be like 111111111 so i started from 1x when a 1x hit and then hit again consecutive or not that is the gap ..
Example :


29
36
6
23
5
8
10
10 here is first hit of 1x
8 here 1x hit again gap 1

 

Confused how can you have a gap of 6 then in the first row in your example?

 

If you mean this , that is not a gap of 6 but gap 1 went first to 6x...

1x 1 4 5
2x 1 4 3
3x 1 2 4
4x 1 4 2
5x 1 2
6x 1 2
7x 1
8x 1
9x 1

 

I'm also struggling to understand, can you give some examples maybe in different layout? Or explain what 1x 1 4 5 means exactly? Is it first 3 1x by spin count?

 

I am sorry for that. . On the full table I posted if you look first row are all gaps for 1x from left to right. Now those three 1-4-5 are the first three gaps. So on the above table 1x did hit back to back so is on 2x also. .

 

Let me move to streets , i will keep the new created streets and not the predefined ones and keep 3 as 1 .
I will ad spins and try to describe;

spins
29
36
6 this is our 1st street [29,36,6]
23
5
8 this is our 2nd street [23,5,8]
10 now this one was starting to create the 3rd [10,] street and did repeat so this is a gap 1
10 3rd [10,] R
8 2rd [23,5,8]
5 2rd [23,5,8]
22 3rd [10,23,]
32 3rd [10,23,32] - complete
21 4th street starting [21,]
29 1st [29,36,6] R
2
34 4th [21,2,34] - complete
15
27
2 4th [21,2,34] R
31 5th [15,27,31]

and so one , table looks like this:

1 29 36 6
2 23 5 8
3 10 22 32
4 21 2 34
5 15 27 31
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

now i was applying what we know to this! When i had a Repeat on a street i was going for 2 matches on that street , so when for example on our street 3 that 10 hit i was going for the two remaining on that group based on turbo street but with the new created ....

 

I appreciate the help. Creating streets like that is to have a group of 3 numbers that have hit consecutively? So essentially you are taking any 3 numbers that have shown, tracking them until the first one hits and then playing the other 2 numbers in the hope they will follow? Am I right?

 

Based on that I was trying out the following with mixed results. Can't get it working without progression.

After 10 spins write down 4 consecutive numbers that have not show yet;

5
9
14
2
6
25
22
1
6
5
2
18
3
27
21
20
17
32

Now wait for one of them to show;

33
28
28
7
16
20

Now play the remaining 3 numbers (21 17 32);

24
28
31
17

17 hits, start over.

 

Ive tried many variations of group completion. Even group of hottest numbers and cold numbers. Also what turbo said of the last number in a set of numbers. And like @Nimo said play them as one. Again no difference with random...

Made 36 groups of numbers we know we have a hit in 8 "spins" The last one in the group had the best "odds" to get a completion of the group and a hit in 8. Did not work...

 

Let's say on final table with the created streets I go for the first runner as it will have most hits=more gaps. I will bet only that group but my target are the gaps until I have a repeat. . That means when I have a trigger I will bet 3 numbers..

 

Karl
As you are one of the resident math boys.
A simple question to you.

82 independent spins, using unit of 5. +615

Again 82 spins, convenient. This stream using unit of 1. +157

Does it mean; if the top game was played using unit of 1 the profit would be +123

If correct then the 3000 units can not handle a 5 unit stake, more likely to0 bust

Thanks Bud

 

Karl
Most posted graphs show early profit. Gigi has said take early profit.
Would that mean they could beat roulette.
On R-sim you can see the 3000 stake and bust with 1 spin. Who are these top dogs(cough).
Even TG loses 150'000 before his bank gets big enough to survive